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Question Pool
Technician - Element 2
Subelement T1 - FCC Rules, descriptions
and definitions for the amateur radio service, operator and station
license responsibilities
Group T1A - Amateur Radio services;
purpose of the amateur service, amateur-satellite service,
operator/primary station license grant, where FCC rules are
codified, basis and purpose of FCC rules, meanings of basic terms
used in FCC rules
T1A01 (D)
For whom is the Amateur Radio Service
intended?
·
A. Persons who have messages to broadcast to
the public
·
B. Persons who need communications for the
activities of their immediate family members, relatives and friends
·
C. Persons who need two-way communications for
personal reasons
·
D. Persons who are interested in radio
technique solely with a personal aim and without pecuniary interest
T1A02 (C)
What agency regulates and enforces the
rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?
·
A. FEMA
·
B. The ITU
·
C. The FCC
·
D. Homeland Security
T1A03 (D)
Which part of the FCC rules contains the
rules and regulations governing the Amateur Radio Service?
·
A. Part 73
·
B. Part 95
·
C. Part 90
·
D. Part 97
T1A04 (C)
Which of the following meets the FCC
definition of harmful interference?
·
A. Radio transmissions that annoy users of a
repeater
·
B. Unwanted radio transmissions that cause
costly harm to radio station apparatus
·
C. That which seriously degrades, obstructs, or
repeatedly interrupts a radio communication service operating in
accordance with the Radio Regulations
·
D. Static from lightning storms
T1A05 (D)
What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a
space station?
·
A. Any multi-stage satellite
·
B. An Earth satellite that carries one of more
amateur operators
·
C. An amateur station located less than 25 km
above the Earth's surface
·
D. An amateur station located more than 50 km
above the Earth's surface
T1A06 (C)
What is the FCC Part 97 definition of
telecommand?
·
A. An instruction bulletin issued by the FCC
·
B. A one-way radio transmission of measurements
at a distance from the measuring instrument
·
C. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify
or terminate functions of a device at a distance
·
D. An instruction from a VEC
T1A07 (C)
What is the FCC Part 97 definition of
telemetry?
·
A. An information bulletin issued by the FCC
·
B. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify
or terminate functions of a device at a distance
·
C. A one-way transmission of measurements at a
distance from the measuring instrument
·
D. An information bulletin from a VEC
T1A08 (B)
Which of the following entities
recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for
auxiliary and repeater stations?
·
A. Frequency Spectrum Manager
·
B. Frequency Coordinator
·
C. FCC Regional Field Office
·
D. International Telecommunications Union
T1A09 (C)
Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?
·
A. The FCC Office of Spectrum Management and
Coordination Policy
·
B. The local chapter of the Office of National
Council of Independent Frequency Coordinators
·
C. Amateur operators in a local or regional
area whose stations are eligible to be auxiliary or repeater stations
·
D. FCC Regional Field Office
T1A10 (A)
What is the FCC Part 97 definition of an
amateur station?
·
A. A station in an Amateur Radio Service
consisting of the apparatus necessary for carrying on radio
communications
·
B. A building where Amateur Radio receivers,
transmitters, and RF power amplifiers are installed
·
C. Any radio station operated by a
non-professional
·
D. Any radio station for hobby use
T1A11 (C)
Which of the following stations
transmits signals over the air from a remote receive site to a
repeater for retransmission?
·
A. Beacon station
·
B. Relay station
·
C. Auxiliary station
·
D. Message forwarding station
Group T1B - Authorized frequencies;
frequency allocations, ITU regions, emission type, restricted
sub-bands, spectrum sharing, transmissions near band edges
T1B01 (B)
What is the ITU?
·
A. An agency of the United States Department of
Telecommunications Management
·
B. A United Nations agency for information and
communication technology issues
·
C. An independent frequency coordination agency
·
D. A department of the FCC
T1B02 (B)
North American amateur stations are
located in which ITU region?
·
A. Region 1
·
B. Region 2
·
C. Region 3
·
D. Region 4
T1B03 (B)
Which frequency is within the 6 meter
band?
·
A. 49.00 MHz
·
B. 52.525 MHz
·
C. 28.50 MHz
·
D. 222.15 MHz
T1B04 (A)
Which amateur band are you using when
your station is transmitting on 146.52 MHz?
·
A. 2 meter band
·
B. 20 meter band
·
C. 14 meter band
·
D. 6 meter band
T1B05 (C)
Which 70 cm frequency is authorized to a
Technician Class license holder operating in ITU Region 2?
·
A. 53.350 MHz
·
B. 146.520 MHz
·
C. 443.350 MHz
·
D. 222.520 MHz
T1B06 (B)
Which 23 cm frequency is authorized to a
Technician Class operator license?
·
A. 2315 MHz
·
B. 1296 MHz
·
C. 3390 MHz
·
D. 146.52 MHz
T1B07 (D)
What amateur band are you using if you
are transmitting on 223.50 MHz?
·
A. 15 meter band
·
B. 10 meter band
·
C. 2 meter band
·
D. 1.25 meter band
T1B08 (C)
What do the FCC rules mean when an
amateur frequency band is said to be available on a secondary basis?
·
A. Secondary users of a frequency have equal
rights to operate
·
B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the
frequency at night
·
C. Amateurs may not cause harmful interference
to primary users
·
D. Secondary users are not allowed on amateur
bands
T1B09 (D)
Why should you not set your transmit
frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?
·
A. To allow for calibration error in the
transmitter frequency display
·
B. So that modulation sidebands do not extend
beyond the band edge
·
C. To allow for transmitter frequency drift
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T1B10 (C)
Which of the bands available to
Technician Class operators have mode-restricted sub-bands?
·
A. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 70 cm bands
·
B. The 2 meter and 13 cm bands
·
C. The 6 meter, 2 meter, and 1.25 meter bands
·
D. The 2 meter and 70 cm bands
T1B11 (A)
What emission modes are permitted in the
mode-restricted sub-bands at 50.0 to 50.1 MHz and 144.0 to 144.1 MHz?
·
A. CW only
·
B. CW and RTTY
·
C. SSB only
·
D. CW and SSB
Group T1C - Operator classes and station call signs; operator classes, sequential, special event, and vanity call sign systems, international communications, reciprocal operation, station license and licensee, places where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, name and address on ULS, license term, renewal, grace period
T1C01 (C)
Which type of call sign has a single
letter in both the prefix and suffix?
·
A. Vanity
·
B. Sequential
·
C. Special event
·
D. In-memoriam
T1C02 (B)
Which of the following is a valid US
amateur radio station call sign?
·
A. KMA3505
·
B. W3ABC
·
C. KDKA
·
D. 11Q1176
T1C03 (A)
What types of international
communications are permitted by an FCC-licensed amateur station?
·
A. Communications incidental to the purposes of
the amateur service and remarks of a personal character
·
B. Communications incidental to conducting
business or remarks of a personal nature
·
C. Only communications incidental to contest
exchanges, all other communications are prohibited
·
D. Any communications that would be permitted
on an international broadcast station
T1C04 (A)
When are you allowed to operate your
amateur station in a foreign country?
·
A. When the foreign country authorizes it
·
B. When there is a mutual agreement allowing
third party communications
·
C. When authorization permits amateur
communications in a foreign language
·
D. When you are communicating with non-licensed
individuals in another country
T1C05 (A)
What must you do if you are operating on
the 23 cm band and learn that you are interfering with a radiolocation
station outside the United States?
·
A. Stop operating or take steps to eliminate
the harmful interference
·
B. Nothing, because this band is allocated
exclusively to the amateur service
·
C. Establish contact with the radiolocation
station and ask them to change frequency
·
D. Change to CW mode, because this would not
likely cause interference
T1C06 (D)
From which of the following may an
FCC-licensed amateur station transmit, in addition to places where the
FCC regulates communications?
·
A. From within any country that belongs to the
International Telecommunications Union
·
B. From within any country that is a member of
the United Nations
·
C. From anywhere within in ITU Regions 2 and 3
·
D. From any vessel or craft located in
international waters and documented or registered in the United States
T1C07 (B)
What may result when correspondence from
the FCC is returned as undeliverable because the grantee failed to
provide the correct mailing address?
·
A. Fine or imprisonment
·
B. Revocation of the station license or
suspension of the operator license
·
C. Require the licensee to be re-examined
·
D. A reduction of one rank in operator class
T1C08 (C)
What is the normal term for an
FCC-issued primary station/operator license grant?
·
A. Five years
·
B. Life
·
C. Ten years
·
D. Twenty years
T1C09 (A)
What is the grace period following the
expiration of an amateur license within which the license may be
renewed?
·
A. Two years
·
B. Three years
·
C. Five years
·
D. Ten years
T1C10 (C)
How soon may you operate a transmitter
on an amateur service frequency after you pass the examination
required for your first amateur radio license?
·
A. Immediately
·
B. 30 days after the test date
·
C. As soon as your name and call sign appear in
the FCC's ULS database
·
D. You must wait until you receive your license
in the mail from the FCC
T1C11 (A)
If your license has expired and is still
within the allowable grace period, may you continue to operate a
transmitter on amateur service frequencies?
·
A. No, transmitting is not allowed until the
ULS database shows that the license has been renewed
·
B. Yes, but only if you identify using the
suffix "GP"
·
C. Yes, but only during authorized nets
·
D. Yes, for up to two years
Group T1D - Authorized and
prohibited transmissions
T1D01 (A)
With which countries are FCC-licensed
amateur stations prohibited from exchanging communications?
·
A. Any country whose administration has
notified the ITU that it objects to such communications
·
B. Any country whose administration has
notified the United Nations that it objects to such communications
·
C. Any country engaged in hostilities with
another country
·
D. Any country in violation of the War Powers
Act of 1934
T1D02 (A)
On which of the following occasions may
an FCC-licensed amateur station exchange messages with a U.S. military
station?
·
A. During an Armed Forces Day Communications
Test
·
B. During a Memorial Day Celebration
·
C. During an Independence Day celebration
·
D. During a propagation test
T1D03 (C)
When is the transmission of codes or
ciphers allowed to hide the meaning of a message transmitted by an
amateur station?
·
A. Only during contests
·
B. Only when operating mobile
·
C. Only when transmitting control commands to
space stations or radio control craft
·
D. Only when frequencies above 1280 MHz are
used
T1D04 (A)
What is the only time an amateur station
is authorized to transmit music?
·
A. When incidental to an authorized
retransmission of manned spacecraft communications
·
B. When the music produces no spurious
emissions
·
C. When the purpose is to interfere with an
illegal transmission
·
D. When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz
T1D05 (A)
When may amateur radio operators use
their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of
equipment for sale or trade?
·
A. When the equipment is normally used in an
amateur station and such activity is not conducted on a regular basis
·
B. When the asking price is $100.00 or less
·
C. When the asking price is less than its
appraised value
·
D. When the equipment is not the personal
property of either the station licensee or the control operator or
their close relatives
T1D06 (A)
Which of the following types of
transmissions are prohibited?
·
A. Transmissions that contain obscene or
indecent words or language
·
B. Transmissions to establish one-way
communications
·
C. Transmissions to establish model aircraft
control
·
D. Transmissions for third party communications
T1D07 (B)
When is an amateur station authorized to
automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
·
A. When the signals are from an auxiliary,
beacon, or Earth station
·
B. When the signals are from an auxiliary,
repeater, or space station
·
C. When the signals are from a beacon,
repeater, or space station
·
D. When the signals are from an Earth,
repeater, or space station
T1D08 (B)
When may the control operator of an
amateur station receive compensation for operating the station?
·
A. When engaging in communications on behalf of
their employer
·
B. When the communication is incidental to
classroom instruction at an educational institution
·
C. When re-broadcasting weather alerts during a
RACES net
·
D. When notifying other amateur operators of
the availability for sale or trade of apparatus
T1D09 (A)
Under which of the following
circumstances are amateur stations authorized to transmit signals
related to broadcasting, program production, or news gathering,
assuming no other means is available?
·
A. Only where such communications directly
relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property
·
B. Only when broadcasting communications to or
from the space shuttle.
·
C. Only where noncommercial programming is
gathered and supplied exclusively to the National Public Radio network
·
D. Only when using amateur repeaters linked to
the Internet
T1D10 (D)
What is the meaning of the term
broadcasting in the FCC rules for the amateur services?
·
A. Two-way transmissions by amateur stations
·
B. Transmission of music
·
C. Transmission of messages directed only to
amateur operators
·
D. Transmissions intended for reception by the
general public
T1D11 (A)
Which of the following types of
communications are permitted in the Amateur Radio Service?
·
A. Brief transmissions to make station
adjustments
·
B. Retransmission of entertainment programming
from a commercial radio or TV station
·
C. Retransmission of entertainment material
from a public radio or TV station
·
D. Communications on a regular basis that could
reasonably be furnished alternatively through other radio services
Group T1E - Control operator and
control types; control operator required, eligibility, designation
of control operator, privileges and duties, control point, local,
automatic and remote control, location of control operator
T1E01 (A)
When must an amateur station have a
control operator?
·
A. Only when the station is transmitting
·
B. Only when the station is being locally
controlled
·
C. Only when the station is being remotely
controlled
·
D. Only when the station is being automatically
controlled
T1E02 (D)
Who is eligible to be the control
operator of an amateur station?
·
A. Only a person holding an amateur service
license from any country that belongs to the United Nations
·
B. Only a citizen of the United States
·
C. Only a person over the age of 18
·
D. Only a person for whom an amateur
operator/primary station license grant appears in the FCC database or
who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
T1E03 (A)
Who must designate the station control
operator?
·
A. The station licensee
·
B. The FCC
·
C. The frequency coordinator
·
D. The ITU
T1E04 (D)
What determines the transmitting
privileges of an amateur station?
·
A. The frequency authorized by the frequency
coordinator
·
B. The class of operator license held by the
station licensee
·
C. The highest class of operator license held
by anyone on the premises
·
D. The class of operator license held by the
control operator
T1E05 (C)
What is an amateur station control
point?
·
A. The location of the station's transmitting
antenna
·
B. The location of the station transmitting
apparatus
·
C. The location at which the control operator
function is performed
·
D. The mailing address of the station licensee
T1E06 (B)
Under which of the following types of
control is it permissible for the control operator to be at a location
other than the control point?
·
A. Local control
·
B. Automatic control
·
C. Remote control
·
D. Indirect control
T1E07 (D)
When the control operator is not the
station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the
station?
·
A. All licensed amateurs who are present at the
operation
·
B. Only the station licensee
·
C. Only the control operator
·
D. The control operator and the station
licensee are equally responsible
T1E08 (C)
What type of control is being used for a
repeater when the control operator is not present at a control point?
·
A. Local control
·
B. Remote control
·
C. Automatic control
·
D. Unattended
T1E09 (D)
What type of control is being used when
transmitting using a handheld radio?
·
A. Radio control
·
B. Unattended control
·
C. Automatic control
·
D. Local control
T1E10 (B)
What type of control is used when the
control operator is not at the station location but can indirectly
manipulate the operating adjustments of a station?
·
A. Local
·
B. Remote
·
C. Automatic
·
D. Unattended
T1E11 (D)
Who does the FCC presume to be the
control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the
contrary is in the station records?
·
A. The station custodian
·
B. The third party participant
·
C. The person operating the station equipment
·
D. The station licensee
Group T1F - Station identification
and operation standards; special operations for repeaters and
auxiliary stations, third party communications, club stations,
station security, FCC inspection
T1F01 (A)
What type of identification is being
used when identifying a station on the air as Race Headquarters?
·
A. Tactical call
·
B. Self-assigned designator
·
C. SSID
·
D. Broadcast station
T1F02 (C)
When using tactical identifiers, how
often must your station transmit the station's FCC-assigned call sign?
·
A. Never, the tactical call is sufficient
·
B. Once during every hour
·
C. Every ten minutes
·
D. At the end of every communication
T1F03 (D)
When is an amateur station required to
transmit its assigned call sign?
·
A. At the beginning of each contact, and every
10 minutes thereafter
·
B. At least once during each transmission
·
C. At least every 15 minutes during and at the
end of a contact
·
D. At least every 10 minutes during and at the
end of a contact
T1F04 (C)
Which of the following is an acceptable
language for use for station identification when operating in a phone
sub-band?
·
A. Any language recognized by the United
Nations
·
B. Any language recognized by the ITU
·
C. The English language
·
D. English, French, or Spanish
T1F05 (B)
What method of call sign identification
is required for a station transmitting phone signals?
·
A. Send the call sign followed by the indicator
RPT
·
B. Send the call sign using CW or phone
emission
·
C. Send the call sign followed by the indicator
R
·
D. Send the call sign using only phone emission
T1F06 (D)
Which of the following formats of a
self-assigned indicator is acceptable when identifying using a phone
transmission?
·
A. KL7CC stroke W3
·
B. KL7CC slant W3
·
C. KL7CC slash W3
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T1F07 (D)
Which of the following restrictions
apply when appending a self-assigned call sign indicator?
·
A. It must be more than three letters and less
than five letters
·
B. It must be less than five letters
·
C. It must start with the letters AA through
AL, K, N, or W and be not less than two characters or more than five
characters in length
·
D. It must not conflict with any other
indicator specified by the FCC rules or with any call sign prefix
assigned to another country
T1F08 (A)
When may a Technician Class licensee be
the control operator of a station operating in an exclusive Extra
Class operator segment of the amateur bands?
·
A. Never
·
B. On Armed Forces Day
·
C. As part of a multi-operator contest team
·
D. When using a club station whose trustee is
an Extra Class operator licensee
T1F09 (C)
What type of amateur station
simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a
different channel or channels?
·
A. Beacon station
·
B. Earth station
·
C. Repeater station
·
D. Message forwarding station
T1F10 (A)
Who is accountable should a repeater
inadvertently retransmit communications that violate the FCC rules?
·
A. The control operator of the originating
station
·
B. The control operator of the repeater
·
C. The owner of the repeater
·
D. Both the originating station and the
repeater owner
T1F11 (A)
To which foreign stations do the FCC
rules authorize the transmission of non-emergency third party
communications?
·
A. Any station whose government permits such
communications
·
B. Those in ITU Region 2 only
·
C. Those in ITU Regions 2 and 3 only
·
D. Those in ITU Region 3 only
T1F12 (B)
How many persons are required to be
members of a club for a club station license to be issued by the FCC?
·
A. At least 5
·
B. At least 4
·
C. A trustee and 2 officers
·
D. At least 2
T1F13 (B)
When must the station licensee make the
station and its records available for FCC inspection?
·
A. Any time upon request by an official
observer
·
B. Any time upon request by an FCC
representative
·
C. 30 days prior to renewal of the station
license
·
D. 10 days before the first transmission
Subelement T2 - Operating Procedures
Group T2A - Station operation;
choosing an operating frequency, calling another station, test
transmissions, use of minimum power, frequency use, band plans
T2A01 (B)
What is the most common repeater
frequency offset in the 2 meter band?
·
A. plus 500 kHz
·
B. plus or minus 600 kHz
·
C. minus 500 kHz
·
D. Only plus 600 kHz
T2A02 (D)
What is the national calling frequency
for FM simplex operations in the 70 cm band?
·
A. 146.520 MHz
·
B. 145.000 MHz
·
C. 432.100 MHz
·
D. 446.000 MHz
T2A03 (A)
What is a common repeater frequency
offset in the 70 cm band?
·
A. Plus or minus 5 MHz
·
B. Plus or minus 600 kHz
·
C. Minus 600 kHz
·
D. Plus 600 kHz
T2A04 (B)
What is an appropriate way to call
another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call
sign?
·
A. Say "break, break" then say the station's
call sign
·
B. Say the station's call sign then identify
with your call sign
·
C. Say "CQ" three times then the other
station's call sign
·
D. Wait for the station to call "CQ" then
answer it
T2A05 (C)
What should you transmit when responding
to a call of CQ?
·
A. CQ followed by the other station's call sign
·
B. Your call sign followed by the other
station's call sign
·
C. The other station's call sign followed by
your call sign
·
D. A signal report followed by your call sign
T2A06 (A)
What must an amateur operator do when
making on-air transmissions to test equipment or antennas?
·
A. Properly identify the transmitting station
·
B. Make test transmissions only after 10:00
p.m. local time
·
C. Notify the FCC of the test transmission
·
D. State the purpose of the test during the
test procedure
T2A07 (D)
Which of the following is true when
making a test transmission?
·
A. Station identification is not required if
the transmission is less than 15 seconds
·
B. Station identification is not required if
the transmission is less than 1 watt
·
C. Station identification is required only if
your station can be heard
·
D. Station identification is required at least
every ten minutes during the test and at the end
T2A08 (D)
What is the meaning of the procedural
signal "CQ"?
·
A. Call on the quarter hour
·
B. A new antenna is being tested (no station
should answer)
·
C. Only the called station should transmit
·
D. Calling any station
T2A09 (B)
What brief statement is often used in
place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a repeater?
·
A. Say "Hello test" followed by your call sign
·
B. Say your call sign
·
C. Say the repeater call sign followed by your
call sign
·
D. Say the letters "QSY" followed by your call
sign
T2A10 (A)
What is a band plan, beyond the
privileges established by the FCC?
·
A. A voluntary guideline for using different
modes or activities within an amateur band
·
B. A mandated list of operating schedules
·
C. A list of scheduled net frequencies
·
D. A plan devised by a club to use a frequency
band during a contest
T2A11 (D)
What are the FCC rules regarding power
levels used in the amateur bands?
·
A. Always use the maximum power allowed to
ensure that you complete the contact
·
B. An amateur may use no more than 200 watts
PEP to make an amateur contact
·
C. An amateur may use up to 1500 watts PEP on
any amateur frequency
·
D. An amateur must use the minimum transmitter
power necessary to carry out the desired communication
Group T2B - VHF/UHF operating
practices; SSB phone, FM repeater, simplex, frequency offsets,
splits and shifts, CTCSS, DTMF, tone squelch, carrier squelch,
phonetics
T2B01 (C)
What is the term used to describe an
amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same
frequency?
·
A. Full duplex communication
·
B. Diplex communication
·
C. Simplex communication
·
D. Half duplex communication
T2B02 (D)
What is the term used to describe the
use of a sub-audible tone transmitted with normal voice audio to open
the squelch of a receiver?
·
A. Carrier squelch
·
B. Tone burst
·
C. DTMF
·
D. CTCSS
T2B03 (B)
Which of the following describes the
muting of receiver audio controlled solely by the presence or absence
of an RF signal?
·
A. Tone squelch
·
B. Carrier squelch
·
C. CTCSS
·
D. Modulated carrier
T2B04 (D)
Which of the following common problems
might cause you to be able to hear but not access a repeater even when
transmitting with the proper offset?
·
A. The repeater receiver requires audio tone
burst for access
·
B. The repeater receiver requires a CTCSS tone
for access
·
C. The repeater receiver may require a DCS tone
sequence for access
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T2B05 (C)
What determines the amount of deviation
of an FM signal?
·
A. Both the frequency and amplitude of the
modulating signal
·
B. The frequency of the modulating signal
·
C. The amplitude of the modulating signal
·
D. The relative phase of the modulating signal
and the carrier
T2B06 (A)
What happens when the deviation of an FM
transmitter is increased?
·
A. Its signal occupies more bandwidth
·
B. Its output power increases
·
C. Its output power and bandwidth increases
·
D. Asymmetric modulation occurs
T2B07 (D)
What should you do if you receive a
report that your station's transmissions are causing splatter or
interference on nearby frequencies?
·
A. Increase transmit power
·
B. Change mode of transmission
·
C. Report the interference to the equipment
manufacturer
·
D. Check your transmitter for off-frequency
operation or spurious emissions
T2B08 (B)
What is the proper course of action if
your station's transmission unintentionally interferes with another
station?
·
A. Rotate your antenna slightly
·
B. Properly identify your transmission and move
to a different frequency
·
C. Increase power
·
D. Change antenna polarization
T2B09 (A)
Which of the following methods is
encouraged by the FCC when identifying your station when using phone?
·
A. Use of a phonetic alphabet
·
B. Send your call sign in CW as well as voice
·
C. Repeat your call sign three times
·
D. Increase your signal to full power when
identifying
T2B10 (A)
What is the "Q" signal used to indicate
that you are receiving interference from other stations?
·
A. QRM
·
B. QRN
·
C. QTH
·
D. QSB
T2B11 (B)
What is the "Q" signal used to indicate
that you are changing frequency?
·
A. QRU
·
B. QSY
·
C. QSL
·
D. QRZ
Group T2C - Public service;
emergency and non-emergency operations, message traffic handling
T2C01 (C)
What set of rules applies to proper
operation of your station when using amateur radio at the request of
public service officials?
·
A. RACES Rules
·
B. ARES Rules
·
C. FCC Rules
·
D. FEMA Rules
T2C04 (D)
What do RACES and ARES have in common?
·
A. They represent the two largest ham clubs in
the United States
·
B. Both organizations broadcast road and
weather traffic information
·
C. Neither may handle emergency traffic
supporting public service agencies
·
D. Both organizations may provide
communications during emergencies
T2C05 (B)
What is the Radio Amateur Civil
Emergency Service?
·
A. An emergency radio service organized by
amateur operators
·
B. A radio service using amateur stations for
emergency management or civil defense communications
·
C. A radio service organized to provide
communications at civic events
·
D. A radio service organized by amateur
operators to assist non-military persons
T2C06 (C)
Which of the following is common
practice during net operations to get the immediate attention of the
net control station when reporting an emergency?
·
A. Repeat the words SOS three times followed by
the call sign of the reporting station
·
B. Press the push-to-talk button three times
·
C. Begin your transmission with Priority or
Emergency followed by your call sign
·
D. Play a pre-recorded emergency alert tone
followed by your call sign
T2C07 (C)
What should you do to minimize
disruptions to an emergency traffic net once you have checked in?
·
A. Whenever the net frequency is quiet,
announce your call sign and location
·
B. Move 5 kHz away from the net's frequency and
use high power to ask other hams to keep clear of the net frequency
·
C. Do not transmit on the net frequency until
asked to do so by the net control station
·
D. Wait until the net frequency is quiet, then
ask for any emergency traffic for your area
T2C08 (A)
What is usually considered to be the
most important job of an amateur operator when handling emergency
traffic messages?
·
A. Passing messages exactly as written, spoken
or as received
·
B. Estimating the number of people affected by
the disaster
·
C. Communicating messages to the news media for
broadcast outside the disaster area
·
D. Broadcasting emergency information to the
general public
T2C09 (B)
When may an amateur station use any
means of radio communications at its disposal for essential
communications in connection with immediate safety of human life and
protection of property?
·
A. Only when FEMA authorizes it by declaring an
emergency
·
B. When normal communications systems are not
available
·
C. Only when RACES authorizes it by declaring
an emergency
·
D. Only when authorized by the local MARS
program director
T2C10 (D)
What is the preamble in a formal traffic
message?
·
A. The first paragraph of the message text
·
B. The message number
·
C. The priority handling indicator for the
message
·
D. The information needed to track the message
as it passes through the amateur radio traffic handling system
T2C11 (A)
What is meant by the term "check" in
reference to a formal traffic message?
·
A. The check is a count of the number of words
or word equivalents in the text portion of the message
·
B. The check is the value of a money order
attached to the message
·
C. The check is a list of stations that have
relayed the message
·
D. The check is a box on the message form that
tells you the message was received
Subelement T3 - Radio wave
characteristics, radio and electromagnetic properties, propagation
modes
Group T3A - Radio wave
characteristics; how a radio signal travels; distinctions of HF,
VHF and UHF; fading, multipath; wavelength vs. penetration;
antenna orientation
T3A01 (D)
What should you do if another operator
reports that your station's 2 meter signals were strong just a moment
ago, but now they are weak or distorted?
·
A. Change the batteries in your radio to a
different type
·
B. Turn on the CTCSS tone
·
C. Ask the other operator to adjust his squelch
control
·
D. Try moving a few feet, as random reflections
may be causing multi-path distortion
T3A02 (B)
Why are UHF signals often more effective
from inside buildings than VHF signals?
·
A. VHF signals lose power faster over distance
·
B. The shorter wavelength allows them to more
easily penetrate the structure of buildings
·
C. This is incorrect; VHF works better than UHF
inside buildings
·
D. UHF antennas are more efficient than VHF
antennas
T3A03 (C)
What antenna polarization is normally
used for long-distance weak-signal CW and SSB contacts using the VHF
and UHF bands?
·
A. Right-hand circular
·
B. Left-hand circular
·
C. Horizontal
·
D. Vertical
T3A04 (B)
What can happen if the antennas at
opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using
the same polarization?
·
A. The modulation sidebands might become
inverted
·
B. Signals could be significantly weaker
·
C. Signals have an echo effect on voices
·
D. Nothing significant will happen
T3A05 (B)
When using a directional antenna, how
might your station be able to access a distant repeater if buildings
or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?
·
A. Change from vertical to horizontal
polarization
·
B. Try to find a path that reflects signals to
the repeater
·
C. Try the long path
·
D. Increase the antenna SWR
T3A06 (B)
What term is commonly used to describe
the rapid fluttering sound sometimes heard from mobile stations that
are moving while transmitting?
·
A. Flip-flopping
·
B. Picket fencing
·
C. Frequency shifting
·
D. Pulsing
T3A07 (A)
What type of wave carries radio signals
between transmitting and receiving stations?
·
A. Electromagnetic
·
B. Electrostatic
·
C. Surface acoustic
·
D. Magnetostrictive
T3A08 (C)
What is the cause of irregular fading of
signals from distant stations during times of generally good
reception?
·
A. Absorption of signals by the "D" layer of
the ionosphere
·
B. Absorption of signals by the "E" layer of
the ionosphere
·
C. Random combining of signals arriving via
different path lengths
·
D. Intermodulation distortion in the local
receiver
T3A09 (B)
Which of the following is a common
effect of "skip" reflections between the Earth and the ionosphere?
·
A. The sidebands become reversed at each
reflection
·
B. The polarization of the original signal is
randomized
·
C. The apparent frequency of the received
signal is shifted by a random amount
·
D. Signals at frequencies above 30 MHz become
stronger with each reflection
T3A10 (D)
What may occur if VHF or UHF data
signals propagate over multiple paths?
·
A. Transmission rates can be increased by a
factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
·
B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a
factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
·
C. No significant changes will occur if the
signals are transmitting using FM
·
D. Error rates are likely to increase
T3A11 (C)
Which part of the atmosphere enables the
propagation of radio signals around the world?
·
A. The stratosphere
·
B. The troposphere
·
C. The ionosphere
·
D. The magnetosphere
Group T3B - Radio and
electromagnetic wave properties; the electromagnetic spectrum,
wavelength vs. frequency, velocity of electromagnetic waves
T3B01 (C)
What is the name for the distance a
radio wave travels during one complete cycle?
·
A. Wave speed
·
B. Waveform
·
C. Wavelength
·
D. Wave spread
T3B02 (D)
What term describes the number of times
per second that an alternating current reverses direction?
·
A. Pulse rate
·
B. Speed
·
C. Wavelength
·
D. Frequency
T3B03 (C)
What are the two components of a radio
wave?
·
A. AC and DC
·
B. Voltage and current
·
C. Electric and magnetic fields
·
D. Ionizing and non-ionizing radiation
T3B04 (A)
How fast does a radio wave travel
through free space?
·
A. At the speed of light
·
B. At the speed of sound
·
C. Its speed is inversely proportional to its
wavelength
·
D. Its speed increases as the frequency
increases
T3B05 (B)
How does the wavelength of a radio wave
relate to its frequency?
·
A. The wavelength gets longer as the frequency
increases
·
B. The wavelength gets shorter as the frequency
increases
·
C. There is no relationship between wavelength
and frequency
·
D. The wavelength depends on the bandwidth of
the signal
T3B06 (D)
What is the formula for converting
frequency to wavelength in meters?
·
A. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in
hertz multiplied by 300
·
B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in
hertz divided by 300
·
C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in
megahertz divided by 300
·
D. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by
frequency in megahertz
T3B07 (A)
What property of radio waves is often
used to identify the different frequency bands?
·
A. The approximate wavelength
·
B. The magnetic intensity of waves
·
C. The time it takes for waves to travel one
mile
·
D. The voltage standing wave ratio of waves
T3B08 (B)
What are the frequency limits of the VHF
spectrum?
·
A. 30 to 300 kHz
·
B. 30 to 300 MHz
·
C. 300 to 3000 kHz
·
D. 300 to 3000 MHz
T3B09 (D)
What are the frequency limits of the UHF
spectrum?
·
A. 30 to 300 kHz
·
B. 30 to 300 MHz
·
C. 300 to 3000 kHz
·
D. 300 to 3000 MHz
T3B10 (C)
What frequency range is referred to as
HF?
·
A. 300 to 3000 MHz
·
B. 30 to 300 MHz
·
C. 3 to 30 MHz
·
D. 300 to 3000 kHz
T3B11 (B)
What is the approximate velocity of a
radio wave as it travels through free space?
·
A. 3000 kilometers per second
·
B. 300,000,000 meters per second
·
C. 300,000 miles per hour
·
D. 186,000 miles per hour
Group T3C - Propagation modes; line
of sight, sporadic E, meteor, aurora scatter, tropospheric
ducting, F layer skip, radio horizon
T3C01 (C)
Why are "direct" (not via a repeater)
UHF signals rarely heard from stations outside your local coverage
area?
·
A. They are too weak to go very far
·
B. FCC regulations prohibit them from going
more than 50 miles
·
C. UHF signals are usually not reflected by the
ionosphere
·
D. They collide with trees and shrubbery and
fade out
T3C02 (D)
Which of the following might be
happening when VHF signals are being received from long distances?
·
A. Signals are being reflected from outer space
·
B. Signals are arriving by sub-surface ducting
·
C. Signals are being reflected by lightning
storms in your area
·
D. Signals are being refracted from a sporadic
E layer
T3C03 (B)
What is a characteristic of VHF signals
received via auroral reflection?
·
A. Signals from distances of 10,000 or more
miles are common
·
B. The signals exhibit rapid fluctuations of
strength and often sound distorted
·
C. These types of signals occur only during
winter nighttime hours
·
D. These types of signals are generally
strongest when your antenna is aimed to the south (for stations in the
Northern Hemisphere)
T3C04 (B)
Which of the following propagation types
is most commonly associated with occasional strong over-the-horizon
signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands?
·
A. Backscatter
·
B. Sporadic E
·
C. D layer absorption
·
D. Gray-line propagation
T3C05 (C)
What is meant by the term "knife-edge"
propagation?
·
A. Signals are reflected back toward the
originating station at acute angles
·
B. Signals are sliced into several discrete
beams and arrive via different paths
·
C. Signals are partially refracted around solid
objects exhibiting sharp edges
·
D. Signals propagated close to the band edge
exhibiting a sharp cutoff
T3C06 (A)
What mode is responsible for allowing
over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately
300 miles on a regular basis?
·
A. Tropospheric scatter
·
B. D layer refraction
·
C. F2 layer refraction
·
D. Faraday rotation
T3C07 (B)
What band is best suited to
communicating via meteor scatter?
·
A. 10 meters
·
B. 6 meters
·
C. 2 meters
·
D. 70 cm
T3C08 (D)
What causes "tropospheric ducting"?
·
A. Discharges of lightning during electrical
storms
·
B. Sunspots and solar flares
·
C. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes
·
D. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere
T3C09 (A)
What is generally the best time for
long-distance 10 meter band propagation?
·
A. During daylight hours
·
B. During nighttime hours
·
C. When there are coronal mass ejections
·
D. Whenever the solar flux is low
T3C10 (A)
What is the radio horizon?
·
A. The distance at which radio signals between
two points are effectively blocked by the curvature of the Earth
·
B. The distance from the ground to a
horizontally mounted antenna
·
C. The farthest point you can see when standing
at the base of your antenna tower
·
D. The shortest distance between two points on
the Earth's surface
T3C11 (C)
Why do VHF and UHF radio signals usually
travel somewhat farther than the visual line of sight distance between
two stations?
·
A. Radio signals move somewhat faster than the
speed of light
·
B. Radio waves are not blocked by dust
particles
·
C. The Earth seems less curved to radio waves
than to light
·
D. Radio waves are blocked by dust particles
Subelement T4 - Amateur radio practices
and station setup
Group T4A - Station setup;
microphone, speaker, headphones, filters, power source, connecting
a computer, RF grounding
T4A01 (B)
Which of the following is true
concerning the microphone connectors on amateur transceivers?
·
A. All transceivers use the same microphone
connector type
·
B. Some connectors include push-to-talk and
voltages for powering the microphone
·
C. All transceivers using the same connector
type are wired identically
·
D. Un-keyed connectors allow any microphone to
be connected
T4A02 (C)
What could be used in place of a regular
speaker to help you copy signals in a noisy area?
·
A. A video display
·
B. A low pass filter
·
C. A set of headphones
·
D. A boom microphone
T4A03 (A)
Which is a good reason to use a
regulated power supply for communications equipment?
·
A. It prevents voltage fluctuations from
reaching sensitive circuits
·
B. A regulated power supply has FCC approval
·
C. A fuse or circuit breaker regulates the
power
·
D. Power consumption is independent of load
T4A04 (A)
Where must a filter be installed to
reduce harmonic emissions?
·
A. Between the transmitter and the antenna
·
B. Between the receiver and the transmitter
·
C. At the station power supply
·
D. At the microphone
T4A05 (D)
What type of filter should be connected
to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload
from a nearby 2 meter transmitter?
·
A. Low-pass filter
·
B. High-pass filter
·
C. Band-pass filter
·
D. Band-reject filter
T4A06 (C)
Which of the following would be
connected between a transceiver and computer in a packet radio
station?
·
A. Transmatch
·
B. Mixer
·
C. Terminal node controller
·
D. Antenna
T4A07 (C)
How is the computer's sound card used
when conducting digital communications using a computer?
·
A. The sound card communicates between the
computer CPU and the video display
·
B. The sound card records the audio frequency
for video display
·
C. The sound card provides audio to the
microphone input and converts received audio to digital form
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T4A08 (D)
Which type of conductor is best to use
for RF grounding?
·
A. Round stranded wire
·
B. Round copper-clad steel wire
·
C. Twisted-pair cable
·
D. Flat strap
T4A09 (D)
Which would you use to reduce RF current
flowing on the shield of an audio cable?
·
A. Band-pass filter
·
B. Low-pass filter
·
C. Preamplifier
·
D. Ferrite choke
T4A10 (B)
What is the source of a high-pitched
whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's receive
audio?
·
A. The ignition system
·
B. The alternator
·
C. The electric fuel pump
·
D. Anti-lock braking system controllers
T4A11 (A)
Where should a mobile transceiver's
power negative connection be made?
·
A. At the battery or engine block ground strap
·
B. At the antenna mount
·
C. To any metal part of the vehicle
·
D. Through the transceiver's mounting bracket
Group T4B - Operating controls;
tuning, use of filters, squelch, AGC, repeater offset, memory
channels
T4B01 (B)
What may happen if a transmitter is
operated with the microphone gain set too high?
·
A. The output power might be too high
·
B. The output signal might become distorted
·
C. The frequency might vary
·
D. The SWR might increase
T4B02 (A)
Which of the following can be used to
enter the operating frequency on a modern transceiver?
·
A. The keypad or VFO knob
·
B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
·
C. The Automatic Frequency Control
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T4B03 (D)
What is the purpose of the squelch
control on a transceiver?
·
A. To set the highest level of volume desired
·
B. To set the transmitter power level
·
C. To adjust the automatic gain control
·
D. To mute receiver output noise when no signal
is being received
T4B04 (B)
What is a way to enable quick access to
a favorite frequency on your transceiver?
·
A. Enable the CTCSS tones
·
B. Store the frequency in a memory channel
·
C. Disable the CTCSS tones
·
D. Use the scan mode to select the desired
frequency
T4B05 (C)
Which of the following would reduce
ignition interference to a receiver?
·
A. Change frequency slightly
·
B. Decrease the squelch setting
·
C. Turn on the noise blanker
·
D. Use the RIT control
T4B06 (D)
Which of the following controls could be
used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal seems too high or
low?
·
A. The AGC or limiter
·
B. The bandwidth selection
·
C. The tone squelch
·
D. The receiver RIT or clarifier
T4B07 (B)
What does the term "RIT" mean?
·
A. Receiver Input Tone
·
B. Receiver Incremental Tuning
·
C. Rectifier Inverter Test
·
D. Remote Input Transmitter
T4B08 (B)
What is the advantage of having multiple
receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?
·
A. Permits monitoring several modes at once
·
B. Permits noise or interference reduction by
selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
·
C. Increases the number of frequencies that can
be stored in memory
·
D. Increases the amount of offset between
receive and transmit frequencies
T4B09 (C)
Which of the following is an appropriate
receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference
for SSB reception?
·
A. 500 Hz
·
B. 1000 Hz
·
C. 2400 Hz
·
D. 5000 Hz
T4B10 (A)
Which of the following is an appropriate
receive filter to select in order to minimize noise and interference
for CW reception?
·
A. 500 Hz
·
B. 1000 Hz
·
C. 2400 Hz
·
D. 5000 Hz
T4B11 (C)
Which of the following describes the
common meaning of the term repeater offset?
·
A. The distance between the repeater's transmit
and receive antennas
·
B. The time delay before the repeater timer
resets
·
C. The difference between the repeater's
transmit and receive frequencies
·
D. The maximum frequency deviation permitted on
the repeater's input signal
Subelement T5 - Electrical principles,
math for electronics, electronic principles, Ohm's Law
Group T5A - Electrical principles;
current and voltage, conductors and insulators, alternating and
direct current
T5A01 (D)
Electrical current is measured in which
of the following units?
·
A. Volts
·
B. Watts
·
C. Ohms
·
D. Amperes
T5A02 (B)
Electrical power is measured in which of
the following units?
·
A. Volts
·
B. Watts
·
C. Ohms
·
D. Amperes
T5A03 (D)
What is the name for the flow of
electrons in an electric circuit?
·
A. Voltage
·
B. Resistance
·
C. Capacitance
·
D. Current
T5A04 (B)
What is the name for a current that
flows only in one direction?
·
A. Alternating current
·
B. Direct current
·
C. Normal current
·
D. Smooth current
T5A05 (A)
What is the electrical term for the
electromotive force (EMF) that causes electron flow?
·
A. Voltage
·
B. Ampere-hours
·
C. Capacitance
·
D. Inductance
T5A06 (A)
How much voltage does a mobile
transceiver usually require?
·
A. About 12 volts
·
B. About 30 volts
·
C. About 120 volts
·
D. About 240 volts
T5A07 (C)
Which of the following is a good
electrical conductor?
·
A. Glass
·
B. Wood
·
C. Copper
·
D. Rubber
T5A08 (B)
Which of the following is a good
electrical insulator?
·
A. Copper
·
B. Glass
·
C. Aluminum
·
D. Mercury
T5A09 (A)
What is the name for a current that
reverses direction on a regular basis?
·
A. Alternating current
·
B. Direct current
·
C. Circular current
·
D. Vertical current
T5A10 (C)
Which term describes the rate at which
electrical energy is used?
·
A. Resistance
·
B. Current
·
C. Power
·
D. Voltage
T5A11 (A)
What is the basic unit of electromotive
force?
·
A. The volt
·
B. The watt
·
C. The ampere
·
D. The ohm
Group T5B - Math for electronics;
decibels, electronic units and the metric system
T5B01 (C)
How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?
·
A. 15 milliamperes
·
B. 150 milliamperes
·
C. 1,500 milliamperes
·
D. 15,000 milliamperes
T5B02 (A)
What is another way to specify a radio
signal frequency of 1,500,000 hertz?
·
A. 1500 kHz
·
B. 1500 MHz
·
C. 15 GHz
·
D. 150 kHz
T5B03 (C)
How many volts are equal to one
kilovolt?
·
A. One one-thousandth of a volt
·
B. One hundred volts
·
C. One thousand volts
·
D. One million volts
T5B04 (A)
How many volts are equal to one
microvolt?
·
A. One one-millionth of a volt
·
B. One million volts
·
C. One thousand kilovolts
·
D. One one-thousandth of a volt
T5B05 (B)
Which of the following is equivalent to
500 milliwatts?
·
A. 0.02 watts
·
B. 0.5 watts
·
C. 5 watts
·
D. 50 watts
T5B06 (C)
If an ammeter calibrated in amperes is
used to measure a 3000-milliampere current, what reading would it
show?
·
A. 0.003 amperes
·
B. 0.3 amperes
·
C. 3 amperes
·
D. 3,000,000 amperes
T5B07 (C)
If a frequency readout calibrated in
megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were
calibrated in kilohertz?
·
A. 0.003525 kHz
·
B. 35.25 kHz
·
C. 3525 kHz
·
D. 3,525,000 kHz
T5B08 (B)
How many microfarads are 1,000,000
picofarads?
·
A. 0.001 microfarads
·
B. 1 microfarad
·
C. 1000 microfarads
·
D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads
T5B09 (B)
What is the approximate amount of
change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 5 watts to
10 watts?
·
A. 2 dB
·
B. 3 dB
·
C. 5 dB
·
D. 10 dB
T5B10 (C)
What is the approximate amount of
change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power decrease from 12 watts
to 3 watts?
·
A. 1 dB
·
B. 3 dB
·
C. 6 dB
·
D. 9 dB
T5B11 (A)
What is the approximate amount of
change, measured in decibels (dB), of a power increase from 20 watts
to 200 watts?
·
A. 10 dB
·
B. 12 dB
·
C. 18 dB
·
D. 28 dB
Group T5C - Electronic principles;
capacitance, inductance, current flow in circuits, alternating
current, definition of RF, power calculations
T5C01 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in
an electric field called?
·
A. Inductance
·
B. Resistance
·
C. Tolerance
·
D. Capacitance
T5C02 (A)
What is the basic unit of capacitance?
·
A. The farad
·
B. The ohm
·
C. The volt
·
D. The henry
T5C03 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in a
magnetic field called?
·
A. Admittance
·
B. Capacitance
·
C. Resistance
·
D. Inductance
T5C04 (C)
What is the basic unit of inductance?
·
A. The coulomb
·
B. The farad
·
C. The henry
·
D. The ohm
T5C05 (A)
What is the unit of frequency?
·
A. Hertz
·
B. Henry
·
C. Farad
·
D. Tesla
T5C06 (C)
What is the abbreviation that refers to
radio frequency signals of all types?
·
A. AF
·
B. HF
·
C. RF
·
D. VHF
T5C07 (C)
What is a usual name for electromagnetic
waves that travel through space?
·
A. Gravity waves
·
B. Sound waves
·
C. Radio waves
·
D. Pressure waves
T5C08 (A)
What is the formula used to calculate
electrical power in a DC circuit?
·
A. Power (P) equals voltage (E) multiplied by
current (I)
·
B. Power (P) equals voltage (E) divided by
current (I)
·
C. Power (P) equals voltage (E) minus current
(I)
·
D. Power (P) equals voltage (E) plus current
(I)
T5C09 (A)
How much power is being used in a
circuit when the applied voltage is 13.8 volts DC and the current is
10 amperes?
·
A. 138 watts
·
B. 0.7 watts
·
C. 23.8 watts
·
D. 3.8 watts
T5C10 (B)
How much power is being used in a
circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the current is 2.5
amperes?
·
A. 4.8 watts
·
B. 30 watts
·
C. 14.5 watts
·
D. 0.208 watts
T5C11 (B)
How many amperes are flowing in a
circuit when the applied voltage is 12 volts DC and the load is 120
watts?
·
A. 0.1 amperes
·
B. 10 amperes
·
C. 12 amperes
·
D. 132 amperes
Group T5D - Ohms Law
T5D01 (B)
What formula is used to calculate
current in a circuit?
·
A. Current (I) equals voltage (E) multiplied by
resistance (R)
·
B. Current (I) equals voltage (E) divided by
resistance (R)
·
C. Current (I) equals voltage (E) added to
resistance (R)
·
D. Current (I) equals voltage (E) minus
resistance (R)
T5D02 (A)
What formula is used to calculate
voltage in a circuit?
·
A. Voltage (E) equals current (I) multiplied by
resistance (R)
·
B. Voltage (E) equals current (I) divided by
resistance (R)
·
C. Voltage (E) equals current (I) added to
resistance (R)
·
D. Voltage (E) equals current (I) minus
resistance (R)
T5D03 (B)
What formula is used to calculate
resistance in a circuit?
·
A. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) multiplied
by current (I)
·
B. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) divided by
current (I)
·
C. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) added to
current (I)
·
D. Resistance (R) equals voltage (E) minus
current (I)
T5D04 (B)
What is the resistance of a circuit in
which a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90
volts?
·
A. 3 ohms
·
B. 30 ohms
·
C. 93 ohms
·
D. 270 ohms
T5D05 (C)
What is the resistance in a circuit for
which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5
amperes?
·
A. 18 ohms
·
B. 0.125 ohms
·
C. 8 ohms
·
D. 13.5 ohms
T5D06 (A)
What is the resistance of a circuit that
draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?
·
A. 3 ohms
·
B. 16 ohms
·
C. 48 ohms
·
D. 8 Ohms
T5D07 (D)
What is the current flow in a circuit
with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?
·
A. 9600 amperes
·
B. 200 amperes
·
C. 0.667 amperes
·
D. 1.5 amperes
T5D08 (C)
What is the current flowing through a
100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?
·
A. 20,000 amperes
·
B. 0.5 amperes
·
C. 2 amperes
·
D. 100 amperes
T5D09 (C)
What is the current flowing through a
24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?
·
A. 24,000 amperes
·
B. 0.1 amperes
·
C. 10 amperes
·
D. 216 amperes
T5D10 (A)
What is the voltage across a 2-ohm
resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?
·
A. 1 volt
·
B. 0.25 volts
·
C. 2.5 volts
·
D. 1.5 volts
T5D11 (B)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm
resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?
·
A. 1 volt
·
B. 10 volts
·
C. 11 volts
·
D. 9 volts
T5D12 (D)
What is the voltage across a 10-ohm
resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?
·
A. 8 volts
·
B. 0.2 volts
·
C. 12 volts
·
D. 20 volts
Subelement T6 - Electrical components,
semiconductors, circuit diagrams, component functions
Group T6A - Electrical components;
fixed and variable resistors, capacitors, and inductors; fuses,
switches, batteries
T6A01 (B)
What electrical component is used to
oppose the flow of current in a DC circuit?
·
A. Inductor
·
B. Resistor
·
C. Voltmeter
·
D. Transformer
T6A02 (C)
What type of component is often used as
an adjustable volume control?
·
A. Fixed resistor
·
B. Power resistor
·
C. Potentiometer
·
D. Transformer
T6A03 (B)
What electrical parameter is controlled
by a potentiometer?
·
A. Inductance
·
B. Resistance
·
C. Capacitance
·
D. Field strength
T6A04 (B)
What electrical component stores energy
in an electric field?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Capacitor
·
C. Inductor
·
D. Diode
T6A05 (D)
What type of electrical component
consists of two or more conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Potentiometer
·
C. Oscillator
·
D. Capacitor
T6A06 (C)
What type of electrical component stores
energy in a magnetic field?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Capacitor
·
C. Inductor
·
D. Diode
T6A07 (D)
What electrical component is usually
composed of a coil of wire?
·
A. Switch
·
B. Capacitor
·
C. Diode
·
D. Inductor
T6A08 (B)
What electrical component is used to
connect or disconnect electrical circuits?
·
A. Zener Diode
·
B. Switch
·
C. Inductor
·
D. Variable resistor
T6A09 (A)
What electrical component is used to
protect other circuit components from current overloads?
·
A. Fuse
·
B. Capacitor
·
C. Shield
·
D. Inductor
T6A10 (B)
What is the nominal voltage of a fully
charged nickel-cadmium cell?
·
A. 1.0 volts
·
B. 1.2 volts
·
C. 1.5 volts
·
D. 2.2 volts
T6A11 (B)
Which battery type is not rechargeable?
·
A. Nickel-cadmium
·
B. Carbon-zinc
·
C. Lead-acid
·
D. Lithium-ion
Group T6B - Semiconductors; basic
principles of diodes and transistors
T6B01 (D)
What class of electronic components is
capable of using a voltage or current signal to control current flow?
·
A. Capacitors
·
B. Inductors
·
C. Resistors
·
D. Transistors
T6B02 (C)
What electronic component allows current
to flow in only one direction?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Fuse
·
C. Diode
·
D. Driven Element
T6B03 (C)
Which of these components can be used as
an electronic switch or amplifier?
·
A. Oscillator
·
B. Potentiometer
·
C. Transistor
·
D. Voltmeter
T6B04 (B)
Which of these components is made of
three layers of semiconductor material?
·
A. Alternator
·
B. Bipolar junction transistor
·
C. Triode
·
D. Pentagrid converter
T6B05 (A)
Which of the following electronic
components can amplify signals?
·
A. Transistor
·
B. Variable resistor
·
C. Electrolytic capacitor
·
D. Multi-cell battery
T6B06 (B)
How is a semiconductor diode's cathode
lead usually identified?
·
A. With the word "cathode"
·
B. With a stripe
·
C. With the letter "C"
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T6B07 (B)
What does the abbreviation "LED" stand
for?
·
A. Low Emission Diode
·
B. Light Emitting Diode
·
C. Liquid Emission Detector
·
D. Long Echo Delay
T6B08 (A)
What does the abbreviation "FET" stand
for?
·
A. Field Effect Transistor
·
B. Fast Electron Transistor
·
C. Free Electron Transition
·
D. Field Emission Thickness
T6B09 (C)
What are the names of the two electrodes
of a diode?
·
A. Plus and minus
·
B. Source and drain
·
C. Anode and cathode
·
D. Gate and base
T6B10 (A)
Which semiconductor component has an
emitter electrode?
·
A. Bipolar transistor
·
B. Field effect transistor
·
C. Silicon diode
·
D. Bridge rectifier
T6B11 (B)
Which semiconductor component has a gate
electrode?
·
A. Bipolar transistor
·
B. Field effect transistor
·
C. Silicon diode
·
D. Bridge rectifier
T6B12 (A)
What is the term that describes a
transistor's ability to amplify a signal?
·
A. Gain
·
B. Forward resistance
·
C. Forward voltage drop
·
D. On resistance
Group T6C - Circuit diagrams;
schematic symbols
T6C01 (C)
What is the name for standardized
representations of components in an electrical wiring diagram?
·
A. Electrical depictions
·
B. Grey sketch
·
C. Schematic symbols
·
D. Component callouts
T6C02 (A)
What is component 1 in figure T1?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Transistor
·
C. Battery
· D. Connector
T6C03 (B)
What is component 2 in figure T1?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Transistor
·
C. Indicator lamp
· D. Connector
T6C04 (C)
What is component 3 in figure T1?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Transistor
·
C. Lamp
· D. Ground symbol
T6C05 (C)
What is component 4 in figure T1?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Transistor
·
C. Battery
· D. Ground symbol
T6C06 (B)
What is component 6 in figure T2?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Capacitor
·
C. Regulator IC
· D. Transistor
T6C07 (D)
What is component 8 in figure T2?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Inductor
·
C. Regulator IC
· D. Light emitting diode
T6C08 (C)
What is component 9 in figure T2?
·
A. Variable capacitor
·
B. Variable inductor
·
C. Variable resistor
· D. Variable transformer
T6C09 (D)
What is component 4 in figure T2?
·
A. Variable inductor
·
B. Double-pole switch
·
C. Potentiometer
· D. Transformer
T6C10 (D)
What is component 3 in figure T3?
·
A. Connector
·
B. Meter
·
C. Variable capacitor
· D. Variable inductor
T6C11 (A)
What is component 4 in figure T3?
·
A. Antenna
·
B. Transmitter
·
C. Dummy load
·
D. Ground
T6C12 (A)
What do the symbols on an electrical
circuit schematic diagram represent?
·
A. Electrical components
·
B. Logic states
·
C. Digital codes
·
D. Traffic nodes
T6C13 (C)
Which of the following is accurately
represented in electrical circuit schematic diagrams?
·
A. Wire lengths
·
B. Physical appearance of components
·
C. The way components are interconnected
·
D. All of these choices are correct
Group T6D - Component functions
T6D01 (B)
Which of the following devices or
circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current
signal?
·
A. Transformer
·
B. Rectifier
·
C. Amplifier
·
D. Reflector
T6D02 (A)
What best describes a relay?
·
A. A switch controlled by an electromagnet
·
B. A current controlled amplifier
·
C. An optical sensor
· D. A pass transistor
T6D03 (A)
What type of switch is represented by
item 3 in figure T2?
·
A. Single-pole single-throw
·
B. Single-pole double-throw
·
C. Double-pole single-throw
·
D. Double-pole double-throw
T6D04 (C)
Which of the following can be used to
display signal strength on a numeric scale?
·
A. Potentiometer
·
B. Transistor
·
C. Meter
·
D. Relay
T6D05 (A)
What type of circuit controls the amount
of voltage from a power supply?
·
A. Regulator
·
B. Oscillator
·
C. Filter
·
D. Phase inverter
T6D06 (B)
What component is commonly used to
change 120V AC house current to a lower AC voltage for other uses?
·
A. Variable capacitor
·
B. Transformer
·
C. Transistor
·
D. Diode
T6D07 (A)
Which of the following is commonly used
as a visual indicator?
·
A. LED
·
B. FET
·
C. Zener diode
·
D. Bipolar transistor
T6D08 (D)
Which of the following is used together
with an inductor to make a tuned circuit?
·
A. Resistor
·
B. Zener diode
·
C. Potentiometer
·
D. Capacitor
T6D09 (C)
What is the name of a device that
combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?
·
A. Transducer
·
B. Multi-pole relay
·
C. Integrated circuit
· D. Transformer
T6D10 (C)
What is the function of component 2 in
Figure T1?
·
A. Give off light when current flows through it
·
B. Supply electrical energy
·
C. Control the flow of current
·
D. Convert electrical energy into radio waves
T6D11 (B)
Which of the following is a common use
of coaxial cable?
·
A. Carry dc power from a vehicle battery to a
mobile radio
·
B. Carry RF signals between a radio and antenna
·
C. Secure masts, tubing, and other cylindrical
objects on towers
·
D. Connect data signals from a TNC to a
computer
Subelement T7 - Station equipment,
common transmitter and receiver problems, antenna measurements and
troubleshooting, basic repair and testing
Group T7A - Station radios;
receivers, transmitters, transceivers
T7A01 (C)
What is the function of a product
detector?
·
A. Detect phase modulated signals
·
B. Demodulate FM signals
·
C. Detect CW and SSB signals
· D. Combine speech and RF signals
T7A02 (C)
What type of receiver is shown in Figure
T6?
·
A. Direct conversion
·
B. Super-regenerative
·
C. Single-conversion superheterodyne
·
D. Dual-conversion superheterodyne
T7A03 (C)
What is the function of a mixer in a
superheterodyne receiver?
·
A. To reject signals outside of the desired
passband
·
B. To combine signals from several stations
together
·
C. To shift the incoming signal to an
intermediate frequency
· D. To connect the receiver with an auxiliary device, such as a TNC
T7A04 (D)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7,
if block 1 is a frequency discriminator?
·
A. A double-conversion receiver
·
B. A regenerative receiver
·
C. A superheterodyne receiver
· D. An FM receiver
T7A05 (D)
What is the function of block 1 if
figure T4 is a simple CW transmitter?
·
A. Reactance modulator
·
B. Product detector
·
C. Low-pass filter
·
D. Oscillator
T7A06 (C)
What device takes the output of a
low-powered 28 MHz SSB exciter and produces a 222 MHz output signal?
·
A. High-pass filter
·
B. Low-pass filter
·
C. Transverter
· D. Phase converter
T7A07 (B)
If figure T5 represents a transceiver in
which block 1 is the transmitter portion and block 3 is the receiver
portion, what is the function of block 2?
·
A. A balanced modulator
·
B. A transmit-receive switch
·
C. A power amplifier
·
D. A high-pass filter
T7A08 (C)
Which of the following circuits combines
a speech signal and an RF carrier?
·
A. Beat frequency oscillator
·
B. Discriminator
·
C. Modulator
·
D. Noise blanker
T7A09 (B)
Which of the following devices is most
useful for VHF weak-signal communication?
·
A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
·
B. A multi-mode VHF transceiver
·
C. An omni-directional antenna
·
D. A mobile VHF FM transceiver
T7A10 (B)
What device increases the low-power
output from a handheld transceiver?
·
A. A voltage divider
·
B. An RF power amplifier
·
C. An impedance network
·
D. A voltage regulator
T7A11 (B)
Which of the following circuits
demodulates FM signals?
·
A. Limiter
·
B. Discriminator
·
C. Product detector
·
D. Phase inverter
T7A12 (C)
Which term describes the ability of a
receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?
·
A. Tuning rate
·
B. Sensitivity
·
C. Selectivity
·
D. Noise floor
T7A13 (A)
Where is an RF preamplifier installed?
·
A. Between the antenna and receiver
·
B. At the output of the transmitter's power
amplifier
·
C. Between a transmitter and antenna tuner
·
D. At the receiver's audio output
Group T7B - Common transmitter and
receiver problems; symptoms of overload and overdrive, distortion,
interference, over and under modulation, RF feedback, off
frequency signals; fading and noise; problems with digital
communications interfaces
T7B01 (D)
What can you do if you are told your FM
handheld or mobile transceiver is over deviating?
·
A. Talk louder into the microphone
·
B. Let the transceiver cool off
·
C. Change to a higher power level
·
D. Talk farther away from the microphone
T7B02 (C)
What is meant by fundamental overload in
reference to a receiver?
·
A. Too much voltage from the power supply
·
B. Too much current from the power supply
·
C. Interference caused by very strong signals
·
D. Interference caused by turning the volume up
too high
T7B03 (D)
Which of the following may be a cause of
radio frequency interference?
·
A. Fundamental overload
·
B. Harmonics
·
C. Spurious emissions
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T7B04 (B)
What is the most likely cause of
interference to a non-cordless telephone from a nearby transmitter?
·
A. Harmonics from the transmitter
·
B. The telephone is inadvertently acting as a
radio receiver
·
C. Poor station grounding
·
D. Improper transmitter adjustment
T7B05 (C)
What is a logical first step when
attempting to cure a radio frequency interference problem in a nearby
telephone?
·
A. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter
·
B. Install a high-pass filter at the
transmitter
·
C. Install an RF filter at the telephone
·
D. Improve station grounding
T7B06 (A)
What should you do first if someone
tells you that your station's transmissions are interfering with their
radio or TV reception?
·
A. Make sure that your station is functioning
properly and that it does not cause interference to your own
television
·
B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and
contact the nearest FCC office for assistance
·
C. Tell them that your license gives you the
right to transmit and nothing can be done to reduce the interference
·
D. Continue operating normally because your
equipment cannot possibly cause any interference
T7B07 (D)
Which of the following may be useful in
correcting a radio frequency interference problem?
·
A. Snap-on ferrite chokes
·
B. Low-pass and high-pass filters
·
C. Band-reject and band-pass filters
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T7B08 (D)
What should you do if a "Part 15" device
in your neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your
amateur station?
·
A. Work with your neighbor to identify the
offending device
·
B. Politely inform your neighbor about the
rules that require him to stop using the device if it causes
interference
·
C. Check your station and make sure it meets
the standards of good amateur practice
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T7B09 (D)
What could be happening if another
operator reports a variable high-pitched whine on the audio from your
mobile transmitter?
·
A. Your microphone is picking up noise from an
open window
·
B. You have the volume on your receiver set too
high
·
C. You need to adjust your squelch control
·
D. Noise on the vehicle's electrical system is
being transmitted along with your speech audio
T7B10 (D)
What might be the problem if you receive
a report that your audio signal through the repeater is distorted or
unintelligible?
·
A. Your transmitter may be slightly off
frequency
·
B. Your batteries may be running low
·
C. You could be in a bad location
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T7B11 (C)
What is a symptom of RF feedback in a
transmitter or transceiver?
·
A. Excessive SWR at the antenna connection
·
B. The transmitter will not stay on the desired
frequency
·
C. Reports of garbled, distorted, or
unintelligible transmissions
·
D. Frequent blowing of power supply fuses
T7B12 (C)
What does the acronym "BER" mean when
applied to digital communications systems?
·
A. Baud Enhancement Recovery
·
B. Baud Error Removal
·
C. Bit Error Rate
·
D. Bit Exponent Resource
Group T7C - Antenna measurements and
troubleshooting; measuring SWR, dummy loads, feedline failure
modes
T7C01 (A)
What is the primary purpose of a dummy
load?
·
A. To prevent the radiation of signals when
making tests
·
B. To prevent over-modulation of your
transmitter
·
C. To improve the radiation from your antenna
·
D. To improve the signal to noise ratio of your
receiver
T7C02 (B)
Which of the following instruments can
be used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired
operating frequency?
·
A. A VTVM
·
B. An antenna analyzer
·
C. A "Q" meter
·
D. A frequency counter
T7C03 (A)
What, in general terms, is standing wave
ratio (SWR)?
·
A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a
transmission line
·
B. The ratio of high to low impedance in a
feedline
·
C. The transmitter efficiency ratio
·
D. An indication of the quality of your
station's ground connection
T7C04 (C)
What reading on an SWR meter indicates a
perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feedline?
·
A. 2 to 1
·
B. 1 to 3
·
C. 1 to 1
·
D. 10 to 1
T7C05 (A)
What is the approximate SWR value above
which the protection circuits in most solid-state transmitters begin
to reduce transmitter power?
·
A. 2 to 1
·
B. 1 to 2
·
C. 6 to 1
·
D. 10 to 1
T7C06 (D)
What does an SWR reading of 4:1 mean?
·
A. An antenna loss of 4 dB
·
B. A good impedance match
·
C. An antenna gain of 4
·
D. An impedance mismatch
T7C07 (C)
What happens to power lost in a
feedline?
·
A. It increases the SWR
·
B. It comes back into your transmitter and
could cause damage
·
C. It is converted into heat
·
D. It can cause distortion of your signal
T7C08 (D)
What instrument other than an SWR meter
could you use to determine if a feedline and antenna are properly
matched?
·
A. Voltmeter
·
B. Ohmmeter
·
C. Iambic pentameter
·
D. Directional wattmeter
T7C09 (A)
Which of the following is the most
common cause for failure of coaxial cables?
·
A. Moisture contamination
·
B. Gamma rays
·
C. The velocity factor exceeds 1.0
·
D. Overloading
T7C10 (D)
Why should the outer jacket of coaxial
cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?
·
A. Ultraviolet resistant jackets prevent
harmonic radiation
·
B. Ultraviolet light can increase losses in the
cable's jacket
·
C. Ultraviolet and RF signals can mix together,
causing interference
·
D. Ultraviolet light can damage the jacket and
allow water to enter the cable
T7C11 (C)
What is a disadvantage of "air core"
coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?
·
A. It has more loss per foot
·
B. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
·
C. It requires special techniques to prevent
water absorption
·
D. It cannot be used at below freezing
temperatures
Group T7D - Basic repair and
testing; soldering, use of a voltmeter, ammeter, and ohmmeter
T7D01 (B)
Which instrument would you use to
measure electric potential or electromotive force?
·
A. An ammeter
·
B. A voltmeter
·
C. A wavemeter
·
D. An ohmmeter
T7D02 (B)
What is the correct way to connect a
voltmeter to a circuit?
·
A. In series with the circuit
·
B. In parallel with the circuit
·
C. In quadrature with the circuit
·
D. In phase with the circuit
T7D03 (A)
How is an ammeter usually connected to a
circuit?
·
A. In series with the circuit
·
B. In parallel with the circuit
·
C. In quadrature with the circuit
·
D. In phase with the circuit
T7D04 (D)
Which instrument is used to measure
electric current?
·
A. An ohmmeter
·
B. A wavemeter
·
C. A voltmeter
·
D. An ammeter
T7D05 (D)
What instrument is used to measure
resistance?
·
A. An oscilloscope
·
B. A spectrum analyzer
·
C. A noise bridge
·
D. An ohmmeter
T7D06 (C)
Which of the following might damage a
multimeter?
·
A. Measuring a voltage too small for the chosen
scale
·
B. Leaving the meter in the milliamps position
overnight
·
C. Attempting to measure voltage when using the
resistance setting
·
D. Not allowing it to warm up properly
T7D07 (D)
Which of the following measurements are
commonly made using a multimeter?
·
A. SWR and RF power
·
B. Signal strength and noise
·
C. Impedance and reactance
·
D. Voltage and resistance
T7D08 (C)
Which of the following types of solder
is best for radio and electronic use?
·
A. Acid-core solder
·
B. Silver solder
·
C. Rosin-core solder
·
D. Aluminum solder
T7D09 (C)
What is the characteristic appearance of
a "cold" solder joint?
·
A. Dark black spots
·
B. A bright or shiny surface
·
C. A grainy or dull surface
·
D. A greenish tint
T7D10 (B)
What is probably happening when an
ohmmeter, connected across a circuit, initially indicates a low
resistance and then shows increasing resistance with time?
·
A. The ohmmeter is defective
·
B. The circuit contains a large capacitor
·
C. The circuit contains a large inductor
·
D. The circuit is a relaxation oscillator
T7D11 (B)
Which of the following precautions
should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
·
A. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
·
B. Ensure that the circuit is not powered
·
C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded
·
D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the
correct frequency
Subelement T8 - Modulation modes,
amateur satellite operation, operating activities, non-voice
communications
Group T8A - Modulation modes;
bandwidth of various signals
T8A01 (C)
Which of the following is a form of
amplitude modulation?
·
A. Spread-spectrum
·
B. Packet radio
·
C. Single sideband
·
D. Phase shift keying
T8A02 (A)
What type of modulation is most commonly
used for VHF packet radio transmissions?
·
A. FM
·
B. SSB
·
C. AM
·
D. Spread Spectrum
T8A03 (C)
Which type of voice modulation is most
often used for long-distance or weak signal contacts on the VHF and
UHF bands?
·
A. FM
·
B. AM
·
C. SSB
·
D. PM
T8A04 (D)
Which type of modulation is most
commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?
·
A. AM
·
B. SSB
·
C. PSK
·
D. FM
T8A05 (C)
Which of the following types of emission
has the narrowest bandwidth?
·
A. FM voice
·
B. SSB voice
·
C. CW
·
D. Slow-scan TV
T8A06 (A)
Which sideband is normally used for 10
meter HF, VHF and UHF single-sideband communications?
·
A. Upper sideband
·
B. Lower sideband
·
C. Suppressed sideband
·
D. Inverted sideband
T8A07 (C)
What is the primary advantage of single
sideband over FM for voice transmissions?
·
A. SSB signals are easier to tune
·
B. SSB signals are less susceptible to
interference
·
C. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8A08 (B)
What is the approximate bandwidth of a
single sideband voice signal?
·
A. 1 kHz
·
B. 3 kHz
·
C. 6 kHz
·
D. 15 kHz
T8A09 (C)
What is the approximate bandwidth of a
VHF repeater FM phone signal?
·
A. Less than 500 Hz
·
B. About 150 kHz
·
C. Between 5 and 15 kHz
·
D. Between 50 and 125 kHz
T8A10 (B)
What is the typical bandwidth of analog
fast-scan TV transmissions on the 70 cm band?
·
A. More than 10 MHz
·
B. About 6 MHz
·
C. About 3 MHz
·
D. About 1 MHz
T8A11 (B)
What is the approximate maximum
bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?
·
A. 2.4 kHz
·
B. 150 Hz
·
C. 1000 Hz
·
D. 15 kHz
Group T8B - Amateur satellite
operation; Doppler shift, basic orbits, operating protocols
T8B01 (D)
Who may be the control operator of a
station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?
·
A. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator
·
B. A General Class licensee or higher licensee
who has a satellite operator certification
·
C. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator who is
also an AMSAT member
·
D. Any amateur whose license privileges allow
them to transmit on the satellite uplink frequency
T8B02 (B)
How much transmitter power should be
used on the uplink frequency of an amateur satellite or space station?
·
A. The maximum power of your transmitter
·
B. The minimum amount of power needed to
complete the contact
·
C. No more than half the rating of your linear
amplifier
·
D. Never more than 1 watt
T8B03 (A)
Which of the following can be done using
an amateur radio satellite?
·
A. Talk to amateur radio operators in other
countries
·
B. Get global positioning information
·
C. Make telephone calls
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8B04 (B)
Which amateur stations may make contact
with an amateur station on the International Space Station using 2
meter and 70 cm band amateur radio frequencies?
·
A. Only members of amateur radio clubs at NASA
facilities
·
B. Any amateur holding a Technician or higher
class license
·
C. Only the astronaut's family members who are
hams
·
D. You cannot talk to the ISS on amateur radio
frequencies
T8B05 (D)
What is a satellite beacon?
·
A. The primary transmit antenna on the
satellite
·
B. An indicator light that that shows where to
point your antenna
·
C. A reflective surface on the satellite
·
D. A transmission from a space station that
contains information about a satellite
T8B06 (D)
What can be used to determine the time
period during which an amateur satellite or space station can be
accessed?
·
A. A GPS receiver
·
B. A field strength meter
·
C. A telescope
·
D. A satellite tracking program
T8B07 (C)
With regard to satellite communications,
what is Doppler shift?
·
A. A change in the satellite orbit
·
B. A mode where the satellite receives signals
on one band and transmits on another
·
C. An observed change in signal frequency
caused by relative motion between the satellite and the earth station
·
D. A special digital communications mode for
some satellites
T8B08 (B)
What is meant by the statement that a
satellite is operating in "mode U/V"?
·
A. The satellite uplink is in the 15 meter band
and the downlink is in the 10 meter band
·
B. The satellite uplink is in the 70 cm band
and the downlink is in the 2 meter band
·
C. The satellite operates using ultraviolet
frequencies
·
D. The satellite frequencies are usually
variable
T8B09 (B)
What causes "spin fading" when referring
to satellite signals?
·
A. Circular polarized noise interference
radiated from the sun
·
B. Rotation of the satellite and its antennas
·
C. Doppler shift of the received signal
·
D. Interfering signals within the satellite
uplink band
T8B10 (C)
What do the initials LEO tell you about
an amateur satellite?
·
A. The satellite battery is in Low Energy
Operation mode
·
B. The satellite is performing a Lunar Ejection
Orbit maneuver
·
C. The satellite is in a Low Earth Orbit
·
D. The satellite uses Light Emitting Optics
T8B11 (C)
What is a commonly used method of
sending signals to and from a digital satellite?
·
A. USB AFSK
·
B. PSK31
·
C. FM Packet
·
D. WSJT
Group T8C - Operating activities;
radio direction finding, radio control, contests, special event
stations, basic linking over Internet
T8C01 (C)
Which of the following methods is used
to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?
·
A. Echolocation
·
B. Doppler radar
·
C. Radio direction finding
·
D. Phase locking
T8C02 (B)
Which of these items would be useful for
a hidden transmitter hunt?
·
A. Calibrated SWR meter
·
B. A directional antenna
·
C. A calibrated noise bridge
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8C03 (A)
What popular operating activity involves
contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of
time?
·
A. Contesting
·
B. Net operations
·
C. Public service events
·
D. Simulated emergency exercises
T8C04 (C)
Which of the following is good procedure
when contacting another station in a radio contest?
·
A. Be sure to sign only the last two letters of
your call if there is a pileup calling the station
·
B. Work the station twice to be sure that you
are in his log
·
C. Send only the minimum information needed for
proper identification and the contest exchange
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8C05 (A)
What is a grid locator?
·
A. A letter-number designator assigned to a
geographic location
·
B. A letter-number designator assigned to an
azimuth and elevation
·
C. An instrument for neutralizing a final
amplifier
·
D. An instrument for radio direction finding
T8C06 (C)
For what purpose is a temporary "1 by 1"
format (letter-number-letter) call sign assigned?
·
A. To designate an experimental station
·
B. To honor a deceased relative who was a radio
amateur
·
C. For operations in conjunction with an
activity of special significance to the amateur community
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8C07 (B)
What is the maximum power allowed when
transmitting telecommand signals to radio controlled models?
·
A. 500 milliwatts
·
B. 1 watt
·
C. 25 watts
·
D. 1500 watts
T8C08 (C)
What is required in place of on-air
station identification when sending signals to a radio control model
using amateur frequencies?
·
A. Voice identification must be transmitted
every 10 minutes
·
B. Morse code ID must be sent once per hour
·
C. A label indicating the licensee's name, call
sign and address must be affixed to the transmitter
·
D. A flag must be affixed to the transmitter
antenna with the station call sign in 1 inch high letters or larger
T8C09 (C)
How might you obtain a list of active
nodes that use VoIP?
·
A. From the FCC Rulebook
·
B. From your local emergency coordinator
·
C. From a repeater directory
·
D. From the local repeater frequency
coordinator
T8C10 (D)
How do you select a specific IRLP node
when using a portable transceiver?
·
A. Choose a specific CTCSS tone
·
B. Choose the correct DSC tone
·
C. Access the repeater autopatch
·
D. Use the keypad to transmit the IRLP node ID
T8C11 (A)
What name is given to an amateur radio
station that is used to connect other amateur stations to the
Internet?
·
A. A gateway
·
B. A repeater
·
C. A digipeater
·
D. A beacon
Group T8D - Non-voice
communications; image data, digital modes, CW, packet, PSK31
T8D01 (D)
Which of the following is an example of
a digital communications method?
·
A. Packet
·
B. PSK31
·
C. MFSK
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8D02 (A)
What does the term APRS mean?
·
A. Automatic Position Reporting System
·
B. Associated Public Radio Station
·
C. Auto Planning Radio Set-up
·
D. Advanced Polar Radio System
T8D03 (D)
Which of the following is normally used
when sending automatic location reports via amateur radio?
·
A. A connection to the vehicle speedometer
·
B. A WWV receiver
·
C. A connection to a broadcast FM sub-carrier
receiver
·
D. A Global Positioning System receiver
T8D04 (C)
What type of transmission is indicated
by the term NTSC?
·
A. A Normal Transmission mode in Static Circuit
·
B. A special mode for earth satellite uplink
·
C. An analog fast scan color TV signal
·
D. A frame compression scheme for TV signals
T8D05 (B)
Which of the following emission modes
may be used by a Technician Class operator between 219 and 220 MHz?
·
A. Spread spectrum
·
B. Data
·
C. SSB voice
·
D. Fast-scan television
T8D06 (B)
What does the abbreviation PSK mean?
·
A. Pulse Shift Keying
·
B. Phase Shift Keying
·
C. Packet Short Keying
·
D. Phased Slide Keying
T8D07 (D)
What is PSK31?
·
A. A high-rate data transmission mode
·
B. A method of reducing noise interference to
FM signals
·
C. A method of compressing digital television
signal
·
D. A low-rate data transmission mode
T8D08 (D)
Which of the following may be included
in packet transmissions?
·
A. A check sum which permits error detection
·
B. A header which contains the call sign of the
station to which the information is being sent
·
C. Automatic repeat request in case of error
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8D09 (C)
What code is used when sending CW in the
amateur bands?
·
A. Baudot
·
B. Hamming
·
C. International Morse
·
D. Gray
T8D10 (D)
Which of the following can be used to
transmit CW in the amateur bands?
·
A. Straight Key
·
B. Electronic Keyer
·
C. Computer Keyboard
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T8D11 (C)
What is a "parity" bit?
·
A. A control code required for automatic
position reporting
·
B. A timing bit used to ensure equal sharing of
a frequency
·
C. An extra code element used to detect errors
in received data
·
D. A "triple width" bit used to signal the end
of a character
Subelement T9 - Antennas, feedlines
Group T9A - Antennas; vertical and
horizontal, concept of gain, common portable and mobile antennas,
relationships between antenna length and frequency
T9A01 (C)
What is a beam antenna?
·
A. An antenna built from aluminum I-beams
·
B. An omnidirectional antenna invented by
Clarence Beam
·
C. An antenna that concentrates signals in one
direction
·
D. An antenna that reverses the phase of
received signals
T9A02 (B)
Which of the following is true regarding
vertical antennas?
·
A. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the
Earth
·
B. The electric field is perpendicular to the
Earth
·
C. The phase is inverted
·
D. The phase is reversed
T9A03 (B)
Which of the following describes a
simple dipole mounted so the conductor is parallel to the Earth's
surface?
·
A. A ground wave antenna
·
B. A horizontally polarized antenna
·
C. A rhombic antenna
·
D. A vertically polarized antenna
T9A04 (A)
What is a disadvantage of the "rubber
duck" antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers?
·
A. It does not transmit or receive as
effectively as a full-sized antenna
·
B. It transmits a circularly polarized signal
·
C. If the rubber end cap is lost it will
unravel very quickly
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T9A05 (C)
How would you change a dipole antenna to
make it resonant on a higher frequency?
·
A. Lengthen it
·
B. Insert coils in series with radiating wires
·
C. Shorten it
·
D. Add capacity hats to the ends of the
radiating wires
T9A06 (C)
What type of antennas are the quad,
Yagi, and dish?
·
A. Non-resonant antennas
·
B. Loop antennas
·
C. Directional antennas
·
D. Isotropic antennas
T9A07 (A)
What is a good reason not to use a
"rubber duck" antenna inside your car?
·
A. Signals can be significantly weaker than
when it is outside of the vehicle
·
B. It might cause your radio to overheat
·
C. The SWR might decrease, decreasing the
signal strength
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T9A08 (C)
What is the approximate length, in
inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?
·
A. 112
·
B. 50
·
C. 19
·
D. 12
T9A09 (C)
What is the approximate length, in
inches, of a 6 meter 1/2-wavelength wire dipole antenna?
·
A. 6
·
B. 50
·
C. 112
·
D. 236
T9A10 (C)
In which direction is the radiation
strongest from a half-wave dipole antenna in free space?
·
A. Equally in all directions
·
B. Off the ends of the antenna
·
C. Broadside to the antenna
·
D. In the direction of the feedline
T9A11 (C)
What is meant by the gain of an antenna?
·
A. The additional power that is added to the
transmitter power
·
B. The additional power that is lost in the
antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
·
C. The increase in signal strength in a
specified direction when compared to a reference antenna
·
D. The increase in impedance on receive or
transmit compared to a reference antenna
Group T9B - Feedlines; types, losses
vs. frequency, SWR concepts, matching, weather protection,
connectors
T9B01 (B)
Why is it important to have a low SWR in
an antenna system that uses coaxial cable feedline?
·
A. To reduce television interference
·
B. To allow the efficient transfer of power and
reduce losses
·
C. To prolong antenna life
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T9B02 (B)
What is the impedance of the most
commonly used coaxial cable in typical amateur radio installations?
·
A. 8 ohms
·
B. 50 ohms
·
C. 600 ohms
·
D. 12 ohms
T9B03 (A)
Why is coaxial cable used more often
than any other feedline for amateur radio antenna systems?
·
A. It is easy to use and requires few special
installation considerations
·
B. It has less loss than any other type of
feedline
·
C. It can handle more power than any other type
of feedline
·
D. It is less expensive than any other types of
feedline
T9B04 (A)
What does an antenna tuner do?
·
A. It matches the antenna system impedance to
the transceiver's output impedance
·
B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in
weak stations
·
C. It allows an antenna to be used on both
transmit and receive
·
D. It automatically selects the proper antenna
for the frequency band being used
T9B05 (D)
What generally happens as the frequency
of a signal passing through coaxial cable is increased?
·
A. The apparent SWR increases
·
B. The reflected power increases
·
C. The characteristic impedance increases
·
D. The loss increases
T9B06 (B)
Which of the following connectors is
most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?
·
A. A UHF (PL-259/SO-239) connector
·
B. A Type N connector
·
C. An RS-213 connector
·
D. A DB-23 connector
T9B07 (C)
Which of the following is true of PL-259
type coax connectors?
·
A. They are good for UHF frequencies
·
B. They are water tight
·
C. The are commonly used at HF frequencies
·
D. They are a bayonet type connector
T9B08 (A)
Why should coax connectors exposed to
the weather be sealed against water intrusion?
·
A. To prevent an increase in feedline loss
·
B. To prevent interference to telephones
·
C. To keep the jacket from becoming loose
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T9B09 (B)
What might cause erratic changes in SWR
readings?
·
A. The transmitter is being modulated
·
B. A loose connection in an antenna or a
feedline
·
C. The transmitter is being over-modulated
·
D. Interference from other stations is
distorting your signal
T9B10 (C)
What electrical difference exists
between the smaller RG-58 and larger RG-8 coaxial cables?
·
A. There is no significant difference between
the two types
·
B. RG-58 cable has less loss at a given
frequency
·
C. RG-8 cable has less loss at a given
frequency
·
D. RG-58 cable can handle higher power levels
T9B11 (C)
Which of the following types of feedline
has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?
·
A. 50-ohm flexible coax
·
B. Multi-conductor unbalanced cable
·
C. Air-insulated hard line
·
D. 75-ohm flexible coax
Subelement T0 - AC power circuits,
antenna installation, RF hazards
Group T0A - AC power circuits;
hazardous voltages, fuses and circuit breakers, grounding,
lightning protection, battery safety, electrical code compliance
T0A01 (B)
Which is a commonly accepted value for
the lowest voltage that can cause a dangerous electric shock?
·
A. 12 volts
·
B. 30 volts
·
C. 120 volts
·
D. 300 volts
T0A02 (D)
How does current flowing through the
body cause a health hazard?
·
A. By heating tissue
·
B. It disrupts the electrical functions of
cells
·
C. It causes involuntary muscle contractions
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A03 (C)
What is connected to the green wire in a
three-wire electrical AC plug?
·
A. Neutral
·
B. Hot
·
C. Safety ground
·
D. The white wire
T0A04 (B)
What is the purpose of a fuse in an
electrical circuit?
·
A. To prevent power supply ripple from damaging
a circuit
·
B. To interrupt power in case of overload
·
C. To limit current to prevent shocks
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A05 (C)
Why is it unwise to install a 20-ampere
fuse in the place of a 5-ampere fuse?
·
A. The larger fuse would be likely to blow
because it is rated for higher current
·
B. The power supply ripple would greatly
increase
·
C. Excessive current could cause a fire
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A06 (D)
What is a good way to guard against
electrical shock at your station?
·
A. Use three-wire cords and plugs for all AC
powered equipment
·
B. Connect all AC powered station equipment to
a common safety ground
·
C. Use a circuit protected by a ground-fault
interrupter
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A07 (D)
Which of these precautions should be
taken when installing devices for lightning protection in a coaxial
cable feedline?
·
A. Include a parallel bypass switch for each
protector so that it can be switched out of the circuit when running
high power
·
B. Include a series switch in the ground line
of each protector to prevent RF overload from inadvertently damaging
the protector
·
C. Keep the ground wires from each protector
separate and connected to station ground
·
D. Ground all of the protectors to a common
plate which is in turn connected to an external ground
T0A08 (C)
What is one way to recharge a 12-volt
lead-acid station battery if the commercial power is out?
·
A. Cool the battery in ice for several hours
·
B. Add acid to the battery
·
C. Connect the battery to a car's battery and
run the engine
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A09 (C)
What kind of hazard is presented by a
conventional 12-volt storage battery?
·
A. It emits ozone which can be harmful to the
atmosphere
·
B. Shock hazard due to high voltage
·
C. Explosive gas can collect if not properly
vented
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A10 (A)
What can happen if a lead-acid storage
battery is charged or discharged too quickly?
·
A. The battery could overheat and give off
flammable gas or explode
·
B. The voltage can become reversed
·
C. The memory effect will reduce the capacity
of the battery
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A11 (C)
Which of the following is good practice
when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?
·
A. Put a loop in the ground connection to
prevent water damage to the ground system
·
B. Make sure that all bends in the ground wires
are clean, right angle bends
·
C. Ensure that connections are short and direct
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A12 (D)
What kind of hazard might exist in a
power supply when it is turned off and disconnected?
·
A. Static electricity could damage the
grounding system
·
B. Circulating currents inside the transformer
might cause damage
·
C. The fuse might blow if you remove the cover
·
D. You might receive an electric shock from
stored charge in large capacitors
T0A13 (A)
What safety equipment should always be
included in home-built equipment that is powered from 120V AC power
circuits?
·
A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the
AC "hot" conductor
·
B. An AC voltmeter across the incoming power
source
·
C. An inductor in series with the AC power
source
·
D. A capacitor across the AC power source
Group T0B - Antenna installation;
tower safety, overhead power lines
T0B01 (C)
When should members of a tower work team
wear a hard hat and safety glasses?
·
A. At all times except when climbing the tower
·
B. At all times except when belted firmly to
the tower
·
C. At all times when any work is being done on
the tower
·
D. Only when the tower exceeds 30 feet in
height
T0B02 (C)
What is a good precaution to observe
before climbing an antenna tower?
·
A. Make sure that you wear a grounded wrist
strap
·
B. Remove all tower grounding connections
·
C. Put on a climbing harness and safety glasses
·
D. All of the these choices are correct
T0B03 (D)
Under what circumstances is it safe to
climb a tower without a helper or observer?
·
A. When no electrical work is being performed
·
B. When no mechanical work is being performed
·
C. When the work being done is not more than 20
feet above the ground
·
D. Never
T0B04 (C)
Which of the following is an important
safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?
·
A. Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist
at all times
·
B. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid
lightning strikes
·
C. Look for and stay clear of any overhead
electrical wires
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0B05 (C)
What is the purpose of a gin pole?
·
A. To temporarily replace guy wires
·
B. To be used in place of a safety harness
·
C. To lift tower sections or antennas
·
D. To provide a temporary ground
T0B06 (D)
What is the minimum safe distance from a
power line to allow when installing an antenna?
·
A. Half the width of your property
·
B. The height of the power line above ground
·
C. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
·
D. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly,
no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires
T0B07 (C)
Which of the following is an important
safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?
·
A. This type of tower must never be painted
·
B. This type of tower must never be grounded
·
C. This type of tower must never be climbed
unless it is in the fully retracted position
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0B08 (C)
What is considered to be a proper
grounding method for a tower?
·
A. A single four-foot ground rod, driven into
the ground no more than 12 inches from the base
·
B. A ferrite-core RF choke connected between
the tower and ground
·
C. Separate eight-foot long ground rods for
each tower leg, bonded to the tower and each other
·
D. A connection between the tower base and a
cold water pipe
T0B09 (C)
Why should you avoid attaching an
antenna to a utility pole?
·
A. The antenna will not work properly because
of induced voltages
·
B. The utility company will charge you an extra
monthly fee
·
C. The antenna could contact high-voltage power
wires
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0B10 (C)
Which of the following is true
concerning grounding conductors used for lightning protection?
·
A. Only non-insulated wire must be used
·
B. Wires must be carefully routed with precise
right-angle bends
·
C. Sharp bends must be avoided
·
D. Common grounds must be avoided
T0B11 (B)
Which of the following establishes
grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?
·
A. FCC Part 97 Rules
·
B. Local electrical codes
·
C. FAA tower lighting regulations
·
D. Underwriters Laboratories' recommended
practices
Group T0C - RF hazards; radiation
exposure, proximity to antennas, recognized safe power levels,
exposure to others
T0C01 (D)
What type of radiation are VHF and UHF
radio signals?
·
A. Gamma radiation
·
B. Ionizing radiation
·
C. Alpha radiation
·
D. Non-ionizing radiation
T0C02 (B)
Which of the following frequencies has
the lowest Maximum Permissible Exposure limit?
·
A. 3.5 MHz
·
B. 50 MHz
·
C. 440 MHz
·
D. 1296 MHz
T0C03 (C)
What is the maximum power level that an
amateur radio station may use at VHF frequencies before an RF exposure
evaluation is required?
·
A. 1500 watts PEP transmitter output
·
B. 1 watt forward power
·
C. 50 watts PEP at the antenna
·
D. 50 watts PEP reflected power
T0C04 (D)
What factors affect the RF exposure of
people near an amateur station antenna?
·
A. Frequency and power level of the RF field
·
B. Distance from the antenna to a person
·
C. Radiation pattern of the antenna
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0C05 (D)
Why do exposure limits vary with
frequency?
·
A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy
than higher frequency fields
·
B. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate
the human body
·
C. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in
nature
·
D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at
some frequencies than at others
T0C06 (D)
Which of the following is an acceptable
method to determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure
regulations?
·
A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
·
B. By calculation based on computer modeling
·
C. By measurement of field strength using
calibrated equipment
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0C07 (B)
What could happen if a person
accidentally touched your antenna while you were transmitting?
·
A. Touching the antenna could cause television
interference
·
B. They might receive a painful RF burn
·
C. They might develop radiation poisoning
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0C08 (A)
Which of the following actions might
amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF radiation in excess
of FCC-supplied limits?
·
A. Relocate antennas
·
B. Relocate the transmitter
·
C. Increase the duty cycle
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0C09 (B)
How can you make sure your station stays
in compliance with RF safety regulations?
·
A. By informing the FCC of any changes made in
your station
·
B. By re-evaluating the station whenever an
item of equipment is changed
·
C. By making sure your antennas have low SWR
·
D. All of these choices are correct
T0C10 (A)
Why is duty cycle one of the factors
used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?
·
A. It affects the average exposure of people to
radiation
·
B. It affects the peak exposure of people to
radiation
·
C. It takes into account the antenna feedline
loss
·
D. It takes into account the thermal effects of
the final amplifier
T0C11 (C)
What is meant by "duty cycle" when
referring to RF exposure?
·
A. The difference between lowest usable output
and maximum rated output power of a transmitter
·
B. The difference between PEP and average power
of an SSB signal
·
C. The ratio of on-air time to total operating
time of a transmitted signal
·
D. The amount of time the operator spends
transmitting
*** End of Question Pool ***
*** End of Qustion Pool ***
Please address any questions, corrections or suggestions regarding this question pool to:
E-mail: Dave@AZARA.org